Navigation » List of Schools » East Los Angeles College » Physiology » Physiology 001 – Introduction to Human Physiology » Winter 2021 » Lecture Exam 3 (A)
Below are the questions for the exam with the choices of answers:
Question #1
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #2
A A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart.
B The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate.
C Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.
D The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.
E Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.
Question #3
A segmentation.
B peristalsis.
C mass movement.
D receptive relaxation.
E migrating motility complex.
Question #4
A Clostridium difficile.
B Helicobacter pylori.
C Eschericia coli.
D Streptococcus pyogenes.
E Staphylococcus aureus.
Question #5
A During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries.
B During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.
C During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak.
D Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time.
E During periods of hunger.
Question #6
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #7
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #8
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #9
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #10
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #11
A Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall’s smooth muscle.
B The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa.
C Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves.
D If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place.
E There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system.
Question #12
A A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery
B A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato
C All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level
D A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese
E A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick
Question #13
A Strenuous exercise
B Hypoventilation
C Severe vomiting
D Hyperventilation
E Severe diarrhea
Question #14
A HCl and intrinsic factor
B HCl and gastrin
C gastrin and intrinsic factor
D HCl and pepsinogen
E pepsinogen and intrinsic factor
Question #15
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #16
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #17
A After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver.
B The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form.
C Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can beabsorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells.
D Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins.
E Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine.
Question #18
A The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive.
B An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive.
C A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood.
D The risk to anRh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she haspreviously carried anRh-negative fetus.
E An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative.
Question #19
A Delayed hypersensitivity
B Immediate hypersensitivity
C Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
D Immune-complex hypersensitivity
Question #20
A The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections.
B Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins.
C The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections.
D The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors.
E None of these are true.
Question #21
A It is caused by a retrovirus.
B It is caused by a virus that contains RNA.
C Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi’s sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency.
D The HIVvirus preferentially enters and disables B cells.
E It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant.
Question #22
A B cells
B NK cells
C Helper T cells (CD4 cells)
D Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells)
E Neutrophils
Question #23
A Natural killer cells and B cells
B Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells
C B cells and helper T cells
D Marcrophages and natural killer cells
E B cells and plasma cells
Question #24
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #25
A Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased.
B The body’s set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal.
C The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal.
D There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal.
E Appetite generally increases compared to normal.
Question #26
A refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells.
B refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages.
C is important only for innate immune responses.
D refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation.
E is important only for adaptive immune responses.
Question #27
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #28
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #29
A A decrease in alveolar P O2
B The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions
C An increase in alveolar P CO2
D Decreased alveolar P CO2
E Increased alveolar P O2
Question #30
A The level of H + ions in her blood has increased.
B The level of O 2 in her blood has increased.
C The alveolar CO 2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels.
D The pH of her blood has increased.
E The alveolar O 2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels.
Question #31
A A muscarinic agonist
B Histamine
C A β2-adrenergic agonist
D A β2-adrenergic antagonist
E Pulmonary surfactant
Question #32
A Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies
B Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch
C Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex
D Hair cells in the cochlea
Question #33
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #34
A Decreased arterial PC O2
B Increased arterial P CO2
C Decreased arterial P O2
D Increased arterial P O2
E Increased respiratory rate
Question #35
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #36
A It increases the compliance of the lungs.
B It is secreted by type I alveolar cells.
C It is secreted into the intrapleural space.
D It increases airway resistance.
E It can only interact with other lipid molecules
Question #37
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #38
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #39
A A collapsed lung
B Emphysema
C Inhalation/inspiration
D Pneumothorax
E Exhalation/expiration
Question #40
A the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.
B the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.
C the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.
D the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.
E the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.
Question #41
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #42
A The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.
B The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.
C The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.
D If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.
E The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference.
Question #43
A Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues
B Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction
C Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction
D Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation
E Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation
Question #44
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #45
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #46
A The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction.
B The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria.
C The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches.
D The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony.
E There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles.
Question #47
A parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic
B sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic
C sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic
D sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic
E parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic
Question #48
A A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity
B A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired
C The set point for normal arterial blood pressure
D The prevention or stoppage of blood loss
E The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment
Question #49
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #50
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #51
A Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.
B Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.
C A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.
D Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.
E Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.
Question #52
A FALSE
B TRUE