Lecture Exam 3

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Question #1

During translation, tRNAs anticodons recognize and attach to mRNA codons. What specifically do tRNAs bring to translation?

A a lipid

B a sugar

C a protein

D an amino acid

Question #2

If ATCG is the triplet DNA code, then the ANTICODON would be:

A AUGC

B UTGC

C UAGC

D TAGC

Question #3

In our lecture, I compared condons to:

A stars in the universe

B words of a language

C people on the bus

D MnMs in a bag of candy

Question #4

Which of the following is the best description of a gene?

A a sequence of DNA nucleotides that codes for a single protein

B a sequence of amino acids in a protein

C a single nucleotide

D the entire DNA molecule

Question #5

There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true?

A Several different codons can specify the same amino acid.

B Some amino acids have no link to a codon.

C Each codon specifies a different amino acid.

D Each amino acid is specified by only one codon.

Question #6

Which enzyme unzips or separates the DNA helix in order to expose the two parental DNA strands and creates a replication fork?

A DNA polymerase

B DNA gyrase

C DNA ligase

D DNA helicase

Question #7

All of the following are true statements concerning DNA structure, EXCEPT:

A DNA contains the nitrogenous bases A, C, G, and U.

B DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.

C the two strands of a DNA molecule are antiparallel to each other.

D the two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds.

Question #8

DNA molecules are made up of subunits called nucleotides. How many different types of nucleotides are used to make DNA molecules?

A four types

B three types

C one type

D two types

Question #9

Where does the energy come from to replicate complimentary copy DNA strands?

A kinetic charge attraction

B diffusion

C dNTP’ s

D electrical charge attraction

E osmosis

Question #10

A type of substitution in which no amino acids change is called:

A silent

B Deletion

C missense

D nonsense

Question #11

A nonsenese mutation is a point mutation, usually in the second nucleotide position, and does which of the following?

A introduces a stop codon

B changes one single amino acid

C creates a new protein

D eliminates the start codon

E deletes the entire protein

Question #12

Original DNA sequence: ATC CAT
Mutated DNA sequence: ATC GCAT.
What type of mutation occurred?

A insertion

B deletion

C point mutation

D silent

Question #13

Which of the following mutations results in a non-functional protein because a stop codon appeared too early in the mRNA sequence?

A frameshift

B silent

C nonsense

D missense

Question #14

The transfer of genetic material between two bacteria in direct physical contact through the use of a pilus is called:

A vertical gene transfer

B transduction

C conjugation

D transformation

Question #15

In Griffith’s experiments, the transforming substance was:

A DNA

B RNA

C proteins

D enzymes

Question #16

Bacterial conjugation is an example of:

A transduction

B horizontal gene transfer

C vertical gene transfer

D bacterial transformation

Question #17

Genes transferred from one cell to another is called:

A gene transfer

B transfer of gene

C horizontal gene transfer

D vertical gene transfer

Question #18

The lac operon genes only become expressed if:

A the repressor binds to the operator

B lactose binds to the operator

C glucose binds to the repressor

D lactose binds to the repressor

Question #19

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when:

A there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.

B the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.

C the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.

D the cyclic AMP levels are low.

E there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.

Question #20

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon:

A starts when the pathways product is present.

B does not result in the production of enzymes.

C stops when the pathway’s product is present.

D starts when the pathway’s substrate is present.

E occurs continuously in the cell.

Question #21

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gene regulation in bacteria?

A genes with related functions are often grouped together and have a single start codon.

B small-molecule sensors usually bind DNA and change its 3D structure allosterically.

C activator proteins bind near promoters and increase efficiency of translation.

D enhancers are commonly used to regulate transcription.

E repressor proteins block transcription by binding to operator sequences.

Question #22

In eukaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of:

A protein synthesis

B replication

C transcription

D translation

Question #23

During the reduction phase of the Calvin-Benson cycle, phosphoglyceric acid is ultimately reduced in order to make:

A pyruvic acid; NADP+ & H+

B ribulose 1,5 â bisphosphate (RuBP); NADP+ & H+

C phosphoglyceraldehyde; ATP

D phosphoglyceraldehyde; NADP & H+

Question #24

A photosynthetic bacteria is exposed to a toxin that destroys NADPH. The levels of RuBP and glucose should:

A RuBP increases and glucose decreases

B glucose increases and RuBP decreases

C both decrease

D both increase

Question #25

Which of the following is released as a photosynthesis byproduct or waste product?

A water

B oxygen

C carbon

D carbon dioxide

Question #26

Which of the following is a Photosystem II specific product?

A NADPH

B CO2

C ATP

D phosphogyceric acid

E Glucose

Question #27

The Kreb’s cycle completes two full turns for the oxidation of all pyruvic acid from glycolysis. How many total NADH molecules are made from Krebs cycle reactions only?

A 6

B 0

C 2

D 8

E 4

Question #28

Pyruvic acid, the end product of glycolysis, enters the citric acid cycle after it has been converted to:

A citric acid.

B none of these.

C oxaloacetic acid.

D acetyl-CoA.

E NADH.

Question #29

Which of the following is NOT a similarity that BOTH the Kreb’s and the Calvin Benson cycle share, or have in common?

A both cycles have more than one chemical reaction

B both cycles can start and stop

C both cycles recycle their final products

D both cycles oxidize compounds

E both cycles produce ATP

Question #30

Pyruvic acid cannot advance into the Krebs cycle. It must first be converted into a product that can be further oxidized in Krebs cycle. What is the name of this transformed molecule that starts Krebs cycle?

A CO2

B NAD+

C acetyl CoA

D phosphoglyceric acid

E oxaloacetic acid

Question #31

ATP is an energy rich molecule because:

A the bonds between the phosphate groups are unstable.

B the bonds between the phosphate groups are very stable.

C the three phosphate groups are strongly attracted to each other.

D the sugar in ATP has numerous carbon-hydrogen bonds.

Question #32

Which of the following statements regarding glycolysis is FALSE?

A oxidation of glucose is complete

B oxidation of glucose yields ATP

C oxidation of glucose yields NADH

D oxidation of glucose yields pyruvic acid

Question #33

Fermentation pathways make ATP and NADH. The ATP is used for a variety of cell functions. Why do fermenting cells need to make NADH?

A to use in the transition reaction

B to make more toxic final products

C to use in the Kreb’s cycle

D to make less toxic final products

E to use in the Electron Transport System

Question #34

Microbial fermentation can be detected in laboratory identification by observing a change in:

A glucose levels

B temperature

C oxygen levels

D pH

Question #35

Which of the following best describes enzyme saturation?

A enzymes active site is occupied by substrate

B enzymes active site is not occupied by anything

C enzymes active site is occupied ATP

D enzymes active site is occupied by O2

Question #36

An oxidation enzymatic reaction is a reaction that:

A increases the pH

B gains an electron

C loses an electron

D decreases the temperature

Question #37

Substrates and enzymes capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction, must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction’s:

A entropy.

B endothermic level.

C equilibrium point.

D free-energy content.

E activation energy.

Question #38

How does extreme temperature affect mesophilic proteins?

A breaks chemical bonds

B preserves existing chemical bonds

C destroys substrates

D destroys products

Question #39

Which of the following does NOT directly affect the activity of an enzyme?

A substrate concentration

B oxygen concentration

C pH

D temperature

Question #40

What is the difference between a reversible and non-reversible, competitive inhibitor?

A neither one attaches to any location on an enzyme

B both permanently attaches to the enzymes allosteric site

C both permanently attaches to the enzymes active site

D reversible temporarily attaches to the enzymes active site

Question #41

Which of the following statements is an accurate description of what happens in electron transport?

A NADH and FADH are oxidized.

B NADH and FADH are reduced.

C The final electron acceptor is oxidized.

D The electrons gain energy with each transfer in the chain.

Question #42

In the final step of the electron transport system, the rotation of the proton pump provides the energy for ATPase to enzymatically make ATP. What specifically is responsible for rotating this pump?

A Proton motive force from income CO2

B Proton motive force from incoming H+ ions

C Proton motive force from incoming O2

D Proton motive force from incoming ATP

Question #43

The proton motive force is:

A the accumulation of water formed in respiration

B a H+ electrochemical gradient formed across the plasma membrane

C the movement of flagella

D ATP accumulation in the plasma membrane

E the movement of water across a membrane

Question #44

Dinitrophenol (DNP) is a drug that has the ability to separate the flow of electrons through the electron transport and ATP proton pumps, used during the electron transport system. This means that the energy from electron transfer cannot be used for ATP synthesis. Assuming your bacteria has consumed DNP, how many ATPs would they produce form the complete, aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule?

A 4

B 38

C 2

D 0

Question #45

What phase of cellular respiration has the highest ATP yield?

A the transition reaction

B fermentation

C the Kreb’s cycle

D glycolysis

E oxidative phosphorylation

Question #46

Why is oxygen necessary in aerobic cellular respiration?

A it provides the hydrogen nuclei needed to create a proton gradient outside of the cell

B it is needed for glycolysis, which begins the process of respiration in cells.

C it is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.

D it is important in creating oxaloacetic acid in the Krebs cycle.

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