Navigation » List of Schools » East Los Angeles College » Physiology » Physiology 001 – Introduction to Human Physiology » Winter 2021 » Lecture Exam 3 (A)
Below are the questions for the exam with the choices of answers:
Question #1
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #2
A The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.
B Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.
C The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate.
D A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart.
E Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.
Question #3
A receptive relaxation.
B peristalsis.
C mass movement.
D migrating motility complex.
E segmentation.
Question #4
A Helicobacter pylori.
B Eschericia coli.
C Streptococcus pyogenes.
D Clostridium difficile.
E Staphylococcus aureus.
Question #5
A Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time.
B During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries.
C During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak.
D During periods of hunger.
E During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.
Question #6
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #7
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #8
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #9
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #10
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #11
A Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall’s smooth muscle.
B If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place.
C There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system.
D The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa.
E Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves.
Question #12
A A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick
B A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery
C A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese
D A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato
E All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level
Question #13
A Hypoventilation
B Severe diarrhea
C Strenuous exercise
D Severe vomiting
E Hyperventilation
Question #14
A HCl and intrinsic factor
B pepsinogen and intrinsic factor
C HCl and gastrin
D HCl and pepsinogen
E gastrin and intrinsic factor
Question #15
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #16
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #17
A Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins.
B After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver.
C Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine.
D Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can beabsorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells.
E The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form.
Question #18
A The risk to anRh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she haspreviously carried anRh-negative fetus.
B An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive.
C A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood.
D An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative.
E The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive.
Question #19
A Delayed hypersensitivity
B Immune-complex hypersensitivity
C Immediate hypersensitivity
D Cytotoxic hypersensitivity
Question #20
A The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections.
B Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins.
C The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors.
D The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections.
E None of these are true.
Question #21
A It is caused by a retrovirus.
B It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant.
C The HIVvirus preferentially enters and disables B cells.
D Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi’s sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency.
E It is caused by a virus that contains RNA.
Question #22
A Helper T cells (CD4 cells)
B Neutrophils
C B cells
D NK cells
E Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells)
Question #23
A Marcrophages and natural killer cells
B B cells and plasma cells
C B cells and helper T cells
D Natural killer cells and B cells
E Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells
Question #24
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #25
A Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased.
B There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal.
C Appetite generally increases compared to normal.
D The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal.
E The body’s set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal.
Question #26
A refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation.
B refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages.
C is important only for adaptive immune responses.
D is important only for innate immune responses.
E refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells.
Question #27
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #28
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #29
A An increase in alveolar P CO2
B A decrease in alveolar P O2
C The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions
D Decreased alveolar P CO2
E Increased alveolar P O2
Question #30
A The level of O 2 in her blood has increased.
B The pH of her blood has increased.
C The alveolar O 2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels.
D The level of H + ions in her blood has increased.
E The alveolar CO 2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels.
Question #31
A A muscarinic agonist
B Histamine
C A β2-adrenergic antagonist
D Pulmonary surfactant
E A β2-adrenergic agonist
Question #32
A Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex
B Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch
C Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies
D Hair cells in the cochlea
Question #33
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #34
A Decreased arterial PC O2
B Increased arterial P O2
C Increased respiratory rate
D Decreased arterial P O2
E Increased arterial P CO2
Question #35
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #36
A It is secreted into the intrapleural space.
B It can only interact with other lipid molecules
C It is secreted by type I alveolar cells.
D It increases airway resistance.
E It increases the compliance of the lungs.
Question #37
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #38
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #39
A Emphysema
B Exhalation/expiration
C Pneumothorax
D Inhalation/inspiration
E A collapsed lung
Question #40
A the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.
B the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.
C the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.
D the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.
E the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.
Question #41
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #42
A The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.
B The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference.
C If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.
D The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.
E The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.
Question #43
A Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues
B Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction
C Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction
D Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation
E Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation
Question #44
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #45
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #46
A The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction.
B The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches.
C The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony.
D The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria.
E There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles.
Question #47
A parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic
B sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic
C sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic
D sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic
E parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic
Question #48
A The set point for normal arterial blood pressure
B The prevention or stoppage of blood loss
C A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired
D The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment
E A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity
Question #49
A FALSE
B TRUE
Question #50
A TRUE
B FALSE
Question #51
A Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.
B A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.
C Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.
D Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.
E Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.
Question #52
A FALSE
B TRUE