Lecture Exam 3 (A)

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate.

B  A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart.

C  The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate.

D  Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

E  The slope of diastolic depolarization in SA node cell action potentialsdetermines the heart rate. Stimulation of sympathetic nerves to the heart causes an increase in heart rate. A person whose heart lacks autonomic innervation has a faster heart rate at rest than a person with a normally innervated heart. Stimulation of parasympathetic nerves to the heart causes a slowing of heart rate.

A  peristalsis.

B  migrating motility complex.

C  mass movement.

D  segmentation.

E  receptive relaxation.

A  Staphylococcus aureus.

B  Helicobacter pylori.

C  Streptococcus pyogenes.

D  Clostridium difficile.

E  Eschericia coli.

A  Elizabeth is likely to be in the same amount of pain all the time.

B  During periods of hunger.

C  During the digestion of a high-protein meal, such as a steak.

D  During digestion of a high-carbohydrate meal, such as a bagel.

E  During the digestion of a high-fat meal, such as greasy French fries.

A  FALSE

B  TRUE

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  FALSE

B  TRUE

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  FALSE

B  TRUE

A  Networks of neurons in the wall of the GI tract innervate the wall’s smooth muscle.

B  If the autonomic nerves to the GI tract were cut, digestion and absorption of food could no longer take place.

C  Smooth muscle of the GI tract is innervated by both sympathetic and somatic motor nerves.

D  There are no afferent neuronal pathways from the GI tract to the central nervous system.

E  The nerve plexus of the GI tract exists in a single layer, just outside of the serosa.

A  A snack rich in lipids, such as slices of cheese

B  All of these will have equal impacts on blood glucose level

C  A snack rich in cellulose, such as a bag of celery

D  A snack rich in protein, such as a dried meat stick

E  A snack rich in digestible polysaccharides such as a cooked potato

A  Strenuous exercise

B  Severe vomiting

C  Hypoventilation

D  Hyperventilation

E  Severe diarrhea

A  gastrin and intrinsic factor

B  HCl and intrinsic factor

C  HCl and pepsinogen

D  pepsinogen and intrinsic factor

E  HCl and gastrin

A  FALSE

B  TRUE

A  FALSE

B  TRUE

A  Pepsin digests protein mainly in the small intestine.

B  The enzymes that digest protein are secreted in active form.

C  Free amino acids are the only product of protein digestion that can beabsorbed from the lumen into intestinal epithelial cells.

D  Only the exocrine pancreas produces enzymes that can digest proteins.

E  After absorption, the products of protein digestion are carried by blood directly to the liver.

A  The greatest risk to a fetus occurs when both mother and fetus are Rh-positive.

B  A fetus with type B blood may be at risk if its mother has type O blood.

C  An Rh-negative fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-positive.

D  The risk to anRh-positive fetus of an Rh-negative mother is lessened if she haspreviously carried anRh-negative fetus.

E  An Rh-positive fetus may be at risk if its mother is Rh-negative.

A  Delayed hypersensitivity

B  Cytotoxic hypersensitivity

C  Immune-complex hypersensitivity

D  Immediate hypersensitivity

A  The patient may have increased immunity to the progression of cancer tumors.

B  The patient will have increased immunity to viral infections.

C  None of these are true.

D  Many cells of the body will increase their cellular production of antiviral proteins.

E  The patient will have increased immunity to bacterial infections.

A  Certain unusual cancers such as Kaposi’s sarcoma co-occur with relatively high frequency.

B  It is caused by a virus that contains RNA.

C  It is caused by a retrovirus.

D  The HIVvirus preferentially enters and disables B cells.

E  It is transmitted by intimate contact with infected blood, sexual intercourse with an infected partner, or by an infected mother to her breast-fed infant.

A  Cytotoxic T cells (CD8 cells)

B  Helper T cells (CD4 cells)

C  NK cells

D  B cells

E  Neutrophils

A  Cytotoxic T cells and helper T cells

B  B cells and plasma cells

C  B cells and helper T cells

D  Marcrophages and natural killer cells

E  Natural killer cells and B cells

A  FALSE

B  TRUE

A  The body’s set point temperature is reset so that body temperature is maintained lower than normal.

B  Appetite generally increases compared to normal.

C  The liver retains iron and zinc so plasma levels are decreased from normal.

D  Secretion of cortisol by the adrenal cortex is decreased.

E  There is reduced breakdown of triglycerides in adiopse tissue and a decrease in plasma free fatty acids compared to normal.

A  refers to dilation of blood vessels by chemicals released by damaged tissue cells.

B  is important only for adaptive immune responses.

C  refers to the chemical attraction of neutrophils to a site of inflammation.

D  refers to the engulfing of microbes and foreign molecules by macrophages.

E  is important only for innate immune responses.

A  FALSE

B  TRUE

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  Increased alveolar P O2

B  An increase in alveolar P CO2

C  A decrease in alveolar P O2

D  Decreased alveolar P CO2

E  The same alveolar P CO2 as under normal conditions

A  The alveolar CO 2 has decreased to near atmospheric levels.

B  The level of O 2 in her blood has increased.

C  The level of H + ions in her blood has increased.

D  The pH of her blood has increased.

E  The alveolar O 2 level has increased toward atmospheric levels.

A  A muscarinic agonist

B  Histamine

C  A β2-adrenergic antagonist

D  Pulmonary surfactant

E  A β2-adrenergic agonist

A  Receptors in the aortic and carotid bodies

B  Hair cells in the cochlea

C  Baroreceptors in the aortic and carotid arch

D  Receptors that mediate the Hering-Breuer reflex

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  Decreased arterial PC O2

B  Decreased arterial P O2

C  Increased respiratory rate

D  Increased arterial P CO2

E  Increased arterial P O2

A  FALSE

B  TRUE

A  It increases the compliance of the lungs.

B  It increases airway resistance.

C  It is secreted by type I alveolar cells.

D  It can only interact with other lipid molecules

E  It is secreted into the intrapleural space.

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  Inhalation/inspiration

B  Emphysema

C  A collapsed lung

D  Pneumothorax

E  Exhalation/expiration

A  the pressure of blood leaving the right ventricle is greater than that leaving the left ventricle.

B  the duration of diastole is greater than that of systole.

C  the volume of blood leaving the left side of the heart is greater than that leaving the right side.

D  the contraction of the atria overlaps in time with the ventricular systole.

E  the duration of systole is greater than that of diastole.

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  If both the resistance and the pressure gradient in a tube increase, the flow must also increase.

B  The greater the resistance to flow in a tube, the greater the rate of flow for any given pressure difference.

C  The rate of fluid flow in a tube will increase if the pressure at the beginning is increased while the pressure at the end of the tube stays the same.

D  The rate of flow in a tube will decrease if the resistance to flow is decreased.

E  The flow of fluid in a tube depends upon the absolute pressure at the beginning of the tube.

A  Increased metabolic activity that results in vasodilation

B  Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasoconstriction

C  Increased blood pressure that drives blood more rapidly through tissues

D  Decreased blood flow to tissues that results in vasodilation

E  Increased metabolic activity that results in vasoconstriction

A  FALSE

B  TRUE

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  The Purkinje fibers would not receive their typical action potential frequency from the bundle branches.

B  The ventricles would contract more frequently than the atria.

C  There would be a slowing of the frequency of contraction of the ventricles.

D  The SA node would no longer set the pace for ventricular contraction.

E  The atria and ventricles would no longer beat in synchrony.

A  sympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; intrinsic; extrinsic

B  parasympathetic; reactive hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

C  sympathetic; flow autoregulation; constriction; intrinsic; extrinsic

D  sympathetic; active hyperemia; dilation; extrinsic; intrinsic

E  parasympathetic; active hyperemia; constriction; extrinsic; intrinsic

A  A disease in which blood clot formation is impaired

B  A protein inside red blood cells that binds oxygen with high affinity

C  The maintenance of relatively stable conditions in the internal environment

D  The prevention or stoppage of blood loss

E  The set point for normal arterial blood pressure

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  TRUE

B  FALSE

A  A blood clot is a network of interlacing strands of fibrinogen.

B  Injecting tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA) into a patient who is bleeding will aid blood clotting.

C  Blood clotting requires activation of thrombin.

D  Blood clotting is enhanced by prostaglandin I2 (PGI2) and nitric oxide.

E  Blood clotting occurs too rapidly in individuals with the disease hemophilia.

A  TRUE

B  FALSE