Exam 1

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Question #1

How often should a patient’s administrative data be updated after his/her first visit?

A Administrative data should be updated every other year during a review process.

B Administrative data should be reviewed on every visit and updated immediately if there is a change.

C The data are never changed.

D Administrative data should be updated annually during a review process.

Question #2

When a new patient is seen at a facility, what unique identifier is assigned for the encounter?

A Master patient index

B Data element

C Medical record number

D Registration number

Question #3

What is the retention period for the Master Patient (Person) Index?

A 1–5 years

B 20–30 years

C 10–15 years

D There is no retention period. It’s permanent.

Question #4

A patient is admitted with symptoms of fever and abdominal pain. These presenting symptoms are an example of what type of data?

A Demographic data

B Clinical data

C Administrative data

D Diagnosis data

Question #5

Several different types of data are gathered during the registration process. Administrative data include all of the following EXCEPT:

A diagnosis.

B insurance name.

C full name.

D phone number.

Question #6

One of the ways that disaster recovery might be supported for a smaller facility is by using:

A tape backup.

B cloud services.

C none of these.

D paper records.

Question #7

A patient arrives at a hospital to have a pre-operative consultation with an ENT. The information mailed to the patient stated that the patient should report to the registration department on arrival before going to the department of otolaryngology. This is an example of what type of registration process?

A Systemized

B Centralized

C Decentralized

D Localized

Question #8

Every healthcare facility that treats patients must keep which of the following?

A An EHR to keep track of each patient encounter

B A file cabinet for storing patient records

C A record of each patient divided into individual encounters

D An index card with each patient’s contact information

Question #9

The term concurrent analysis is also known as:

A business analysis.

B reviewing the record after the patient is discharged.

C quantitative analysis.

D patient analysis.

Question #10

When storing digital records, which of the following is too expensive to use?

A Server storage

B Magnetic tape storage

C Printing and warehousing

D Optical disk

Question #11

In the warehousing method of archiving, medical records are filed:

A by medical record number.

B alphabetically.

C by the date the patient was last seen.

D by date of retention expiration.

Question #12

The time that a record is retained by a facility is:

A five years.

B according to a policy written by the facility that addresses the length of time.

C indefinitely.

D ten years.

Question #13

Every healthcare facility that treats patients must keep which of the following?

A An index card with each patient’s contact information

B An EHR to keep track of each patient encounter

C A record of each patient divided into individual encounters

D A file cabinet for storing patient records

Question #14

Being able to extract information from the data system within an ACO and to construct a plan of care for the patient at the time of his/her encounter and subsequent discharge is characteristic of:

A all of these.

B population health management.

C real-time data analysis.

D data mining.

Question #15

In order to move to pay-for-performance, providers need to compare data across the delivery system from physician offices, acute care hospitals, and long-term care providers. The collection of data to provide information for this transition will demand increased:

A all of these.

B interoperability.

C software applications.

D infrastructure.

Question #16

Accountable care requires frequent, high-quality:

A preventative care.

B interventions.

C long-term care.

D office visits.

Question #17

Which of the following points will be of major importance under pay-for-performance reimbursement schemes in the United States?

A Language barriers between patients and providers

B Poverty level of patients assigned

C Level of improvement of patient population

D Number of patients covered

Question #18

CMS expects the majority of healthcare in the United States to be delivered through shared savings organizations by:

A 2040

B 2020

C 2030

D 2050

Question #19

In the United States, the current reimbursement scheme is shifting:

A away from pay-for-performance.

B away from value-based performance.

C towards pay-for-performance.

D towards fee-for-service.

Question #20

The reimbursement scheme for population health management is also referred to as:

A pay-for-performance.

B fee-for-value.

C shared savings.

D all of these.

Question #21

The goal of what healthcare model is to pay providers to improve the health outcomes of a group of patients and therefore reduce health inequities across the population regardless of environmental and cultural constraints?

A Integrated health delivery

B Health care exchange

C Integrated health delivery network

D Population health management

Question #22

Efficiently integrating HIT and health information exchange into facilities, providing better continuity of care to patients, positioning healthcare strategically for changes in reimbursement, and competing at a higher level on quality and costs of healthcare all represent goals of:

A integrated delivery networks.

B health information exchange.

C population health management.

D Meaningful Use.

Question #23

Using a certified EHR to improve quality, safety, and efficiency while engaging the patient to improve the coordination of care and public health is known as:

A integrated delivery network.

B health information exchange.

C population health management.

D Meaningful Use.

Question #24

A goal of IDNs is to:

A accomplish the standards of Meaningful Use.

B move healthcare towards nursing centered care.

C increase government profitability for Meaningful Use technology.

D advance the skills of allied health technicians.

Question #25

Which of the following is NOT a qualifying factor to sit for the CCS credential?

A Successful completion of a coding certificate program

B Master’s in health informatics

C 2 years’ coding experience

D RHIT, RHIA, or CCA credential

Question #26

What requirements are needed for an individual to obtain the RHIA credential?

A Associate degree and pass the RHIT exam

B Bachelor’s degree only

C Bachelor’s degree and pass the RHIA exam

D Associate degree only

Question #27

What does RHIA mean?

A Registered Health Integrity Administrator

B Recommended Health Information Accessor

C Registered Health Information Accessor

D Registered Health Information Administrator

Question #28

The independent accrediting organization that serves the public interest by establishing and enforcing quality educational standards in health information is known as:

A OASIS.

B AHIMA.

C CAHIIM.

D HIMSS.

Question #29

Software that recognizes the dictation of a provider is called:

A voice recognition software.

B epic voice recognition software.

C speech conversion software.

D transcription software.

Question #30

AMIA focuses on which part of electronic health information?

A Security

B Compliance

C Technology

D Integrity

Question #31

What group was formed in 1951 to survey facilities with a set of standards and, if the facility met those standards, it became accredited?

A Office of Inspector General

B OASIS

C The Joint Commission

D HEDIS

Question #32

What was the purpose for establishing the professional organization ARLNA in 1928?

A To elevate the status of individuals who processed medical records

B To write laws for compliance and security

C To assist with documentation

D To teach individuals how to code correctly

Question #33

The first credential for a HIM professional was:

A ART.

B CCS.

C RRL.

D RHIA.

Question #34

Health information professionals, previously known as “record librarians,” were first organized where?

A Blue Cross of Texas

B Massachusetts General Hospital

C Baylor University

D Johns Hopkins University

Question #35

The internal RAC coordinator position requires that a person do which of the following?

A Coordinate claims reimbursement

B Audit charts for deficiencies

C Send bills to insurance companies

D Code charts

Question #36

Recovery audit contractors, whose purpose is to recover improper Medicare funds, were instituted under which act of Congress?

A American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009

B Affordable Healthcare Act of 2010

C Medicare Modernization Act of 2013

D Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996

Question #37

Which credential is held by a cancer registrar?

A CCS

B CMRS

C CTR

D AAPC

Question #38

A group of physicians that contracts with a managed care organization to provide care at a pre-determined, pre-negotiated rate is a(an):

A integrated delivery network.

B capitated practice.

C independent practice association.

D ambulatory practice association.

Question #39

What type of ambulatory care is provided for patients who are seen without a prior appointment for problems that need prompt attention but are not emergency in level?

A Ambulatory surgery center

B Ambulatory clinic

C Urgent care center

D Independent practice association

Question #40

A large research hospital facility, such as the Mayo Clinic, that performs procedures on a clinical trial basis and trains various levels of interns and residents would be referred to as what type of care?

A Tertiary

B Quarternary

C Secondary

D Primary

Question #41

In a single course of illness, the patient was seen by her primary care physician, referred to a specialist, admitted for outpatient surgery, and then discharged with home health. These episodes are an example of a(an):

A continuum of care.

B high-level medical encounter.

C managed care plan.

D patient engagement.

Question #42

After rounds, the nurse practitioner enters the patient characteristics, symptomatology, and lab values into a database that provides instructions and directives for possible treatment and care plans according to the diagnosis. This is illustrative of a(an):

A patient portal.

B clinical decision support system.

C electronic health record.

D Meaningful Use component.

Question #43

Communications, information sharing, and decision making that include the patient and are managed by both the patient and the provider are part of:

A meaningful use of documentation.

B patient-centric care.

C clinical decision support.

D health information management.

Question #44

Stage 3 Meaningful Use can be illustrated by:

A digital and telemedicine enhancements in treatments.

B collecting information for patient engagement.

C all of these.

D improved outcomes.

Question #45

The maximum range for incentive payments among Medicare and Medicaid incentive programs for the electronic health record is:

A $44,000–$63,750.

B $10,000–$20,000.

C $50,000–$75,750.

D $25,775–$50,755.

Question #46

HITECH provides incentive payments in order to support the development of what type of electronic health record?

A Meaningful

B Certified

C Interoperable

D All of these

Question #47

HITECH is a part of what larger Act?

A ARRA

B ACA

C HIPAA

D ONC

Question #48

The ACA mandates that individuals under this age can remain on their parent’s health insurance policy if they do not qualify for coverage on their own.

A 26

B 30

C 18

D 21

Question #49

Which of the following is a FALSE statement concerning the Affordable Care Act?

A The Act will restrict the types of insurance coverage available.

B The Act will improve quality of care through expanded measurements.

C The Act will reduce costs by introducing new models of payment.

D The Act will streamline administrative processes.

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