Chapter 23 Quiz

Navigation » List of Schools » Pierce College » Nursing » Nursing 406 – Adult Health Care » Spring 2020 » Chapter 23 Quiz

Need help with your exam preparation?

Existing Quiz Clients Login here

Below are the questions for the exam with the choices of answers:

Try The Exam

Question #1

The nurse assesses a patient for a possible pulmonary embolism. What frequent sign of pulmonary embolus does the nurse anticipate finding on assessment?

A Syncope

B Hemoptysis

C Cough

D Tachypnea

Question #2

A nurse is caring for a client after a thoracentesis. Which sign, if noted in the client, should be reported to the physician immediately?

A “Client is becoming agitated and complains of pleuritic pain.”

B “Client has subcutaneous emphysema around needle insertion site.”

C “Client has oxygen saturation of 93%.”

D “Client is drowsy and complains of headache.”

Question #3

A nurse is assessing the injection site of a client who has received a purified protein derivative test. Which finding indicates a need for further evaluation?

A A blister

B Reddened area

C 15-mm induration

D 5-mm induration

Question #4

A nurse should include what instruction for the client during postural drainage?

A Sit upright to promote ventilation.

B Lie supine to rest the lungs.

C Change positions frequently and cough up secretions.

D Remain in each position for 30 to 45 minutes for best results.

Question #5

A nurse assesses arterial blood gas results for a patient in acute respiratory failure (ARF). Which results are consistent with this disorder?

A pH 7.35, PaCO2 48 mm Hg

B pH 7.28, PaO2 50 mm Hg

C pH 7.36, PaCO2 32 mm Hg

D pH 7.46, PaO2 80 mm Hg

Question #6

The client asks the nurse to explain the reason for a chest tube insertion in treating a pneumothorax. Which is the best response by the nurse?

A “The tube will drain air from the space around the lung.”

B “Chest tubes provide a route for medication instillation to the lung.”

C “The tube will drain secretions from the lung.”

D “Chest tube will allow air to be restored to the lung.”

Question #7

A client at risk for pneumonia has been ordered an influenza vaccine. Which statement from the nurse best explains the rationale for this vaccine?

A “Viruses like influenza are the most common cause of pneumonia.”

B “Influenza is the major cause of death in the United States.”

C “Getting the flu can complicate pneumonia.”

D “Influenza vaccine will prevent typical pneumonias.”

Question #8

Influenza, an annual epidemic in the U.S., creates a significant increase in hospitalizations and an rise in the death rates from pneumonia and cardiovascular disease. Besides death, what is the most serious complication of influenza?

A tracheobronchitis

B cardiovascular disease

C viral pneumonia

D staphylococcal pneumonia

Question #9

A victim of a motor vehicle accident has been brought to the emergency room. The patient is exhibiting paradoxical chest expansion and respiratory distress. Which of the following chest disorders should be suspected?

A Cardiac tamponade

B Simple pneumothorax

C Flail chest

D Pulmonary contusion

Question #10

A nurse is caring for a client who is at high risk for developing pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse include on the client’s care plan?

A Turning the client every 4 hours to prevent fatigue

B Keeping the head of the bed at 15 degrees or less

C Using strict hand hygiene

D Providing oral hygiene daily

Question #11

A nurse is reviewing a client’s X-ray. The X-ray shows an endotracheal (ET) tube placed 3/4″ (2 cm) above the carina and reveals nodular lesions and patchy infiltrates in the upper lobe. Which interpretation of the X-ray is accurate?

A The X-ray is inconclusive.

B A disease process is present.

C The ET tube must be advanced.

D The ET tube must be pulled back.

Question #12

A patient arrives in the emergency department after being involved in a motor vehicle accident. The nurse observes paradoxical chest movement when removing the patient’s shirt. What does the nurse know that this finding indicates?

A Flail chest

B Tension pneumothorax

C Pneumothorax

D ARDS

Question #13

While caring for a client with a chest tube, which nursing assessment would alert the nurse to a possible complication?

A Absence of bloody drainage in the anterior/upper tube

B Bloody drainage is seemed in the collection chamber.

C The tissues give a crackling sensation when palpated.

D Skin around tube is pink

Question #14

Which statement would indicate that the parents of child with cystic fibrosis understand the disorder?

A “Allergic reactions cause inflammation in the lungs.”

B “Early treatment can stop the progression of the disease.”

C “The mucus-secreting glands are abnormal

D “There are fibrous cysts in the lungs.”

Question #15

A client who has just had a triple-lumen catheter placed in his right subclavian vein complains of chest pain and shortness of breath. His blood pressure is decreased from baseline and, on auscultation of his chest, the nurse notes unequal breath sounds. A chest X-ray is immediately ordered by the physician. What diagnosis should the nurse suspect?

A Pneumothorax

B Pulmonary embolism

C Heart failure

D Myocardial infarction (MI)

Question #16

A nurse recognizes that a client with tuberculosis needs further teaching when the client states:

A “I’ll have to take these medications for 9 to 12 months.”

B “The people I have contact with at work should be checked regularly.”

C “I’ll need to have scheduled laboratory tests while I’m on the medication.”

D “It won’t be necessary for the people I work with to take medication.”

Question #17

A client has been hospitalized for treatment of acute bacterial pneumonia. Which outcome indicates an improvement in the client’s condition?

A The client exhibits restlessness and confusion.

B The client exhibits bronchial breath sounds over the affected area.

C The client has a partial pressure of arterial oxygen (PaO2) value of 90 mm Hg or higher.

D The client has a partial pressure of arterial carbon dioxide (PaCO2) value of 65 mm Hg or higher.

Question #18

After diagnosing a client with pulmonary tuberculosis, the physician tells family members that they must receive isoniazid (INH [Laniazid]) as prophylaxis against tuberculosis. The client’s daughter asks the nurse how long the drug must be taken. What is the usual duration of prophylactic isoniazid therapy?

A 3 to 5 days

B 6 to 12 months

C 2 to 4 months

D 1 to 3 weeks

Question #19

In a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) and respiratory distress, which finding is the earliest sign of reduced oxygenation?

A Increased restlessness

B Decreased level of consciousness (LOC)

C Decreased heart rate

D Increased blood pressure

Question #20

The most diagnostic clinical symptom of pleurisy is:

A Dullness or flatness on percussion over areas of collected fluid.

B Fever and chills.

C Stabbing pain during respiratory movements.

D Dyspnea and coughing.

Question #21

A patient is admitted to the hospital with pulmonary arterial hypertension. What assessment finding by the nurse is a significant finding for this patient?

A Dyspnea

B Syncope

C Ascites

D Hypertension

Question #22

The nurse is interpreting blood gases for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). Which set of blood gas values indicates respiratory acidosis?

A pH 7.49, PaCO2 34, HCO3 25

B pH 7.47, PaCO2 28, HCO3 30

C pH 7.87, PaCO2 38, HCO3 28

D pH 7.25, PaCO2 48, HCO3 24

Question #23

A client diagnosed with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) is restless and has a low oxygen saturation level. If the client’s condition does not improve and the oxygen saturation level continues to decrease, what procedure will the nurse expect to assist with in order to help the client breathe more easily?

A Intubate the client and control breathing with mechanical ventilation

B Administer a large dose of furosemide (Lasix) IVP stat

C Increase oxygen administration

D Schedule the client for pulmonary surgery

Question #24

The clinic nurse is caring for a client with acute bronchitis. The client asks what may have caused the infection. What may induce acute bronchitis?

A Aspiration

B Direct lung damage

C Drug ingestion

D Chemical irritation

Question #25

A client who underwent thoracic surgery to remove a lung tumor had a chest tube placed anteriorly. The surgical team places this catheter to:

A administer IV medication.

B ventilate the client.

C remove air from the pleural space.

D remove fluid from the lungs.

Question #26

What is the reason for chest tubes after thoracic surgery?

A Chest tubes indicate when the lungs have re-expanded by ceasing to bubble.

B Draining secretions and blood while allowing air to remain in the thoracic cavity is necessary.

C Draining secretions, air, and blood from the thoracic cavity is necessary.

D Chest tubes allow air into the pleural space.

Question #27

A nurse is caring for a group of clients on a medical-surgical floor. Which client is at greatest risk for developing pneumonia?

A A client who ambulates in the hallway every 4 hours

B A client who is receiving acetaminophen (Tylenol) for pain

C A client with a history of smoking two packs of cigarettes per day until quitting 2 years ago

D A client with a nasogastric tube

Question #28

A patient has a Mantoux skin test prior to being placed on an immunosuppressant for the treatment of Crohn’s disease. What results would the nurse determine is not significant for holding the medication?

A 9 mm

B 5 to 6 mm

C 7 to 8 mm

D 0 to 4 mm

Question #29

The nurse is assessing a client who, after an extensive surgical procedure, is at risk for developing acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). The nurse assesses for which most common early sign of ARDS?

A Cyanosis

B Bilateral wheezing

C Inspiratory crackles

D Rapid onset of severe dyspnea

Question #30

A victim has sustained a blunt force trauma to the chest. A pulmonary contusion is suspected. Which of the following clinical manifestations correlate with a moderate pulmonary contusion?

A Respiratory alkalosis

B Productive cough

C Blood-tinged sputum

D Bradypnea

Question #31

The ICU nurse caring for a 2-year-old near drowning victim monitors for what possible complication?

A Respiratory acidosis

B Metabolic alkalosis

C Atelectasis

D Acute respiratory distress syndrome

Question #32

You are caring for a client status post lung resection. When assessing your client you find that the bubbling in the water-seal chamber for the chest tubes is more than you expected. What should you check when bubbling in the water-seal chamber is excessive?

A See if a kink has developed in the tubing.

B See if the chest tube is clogged.

C See if there are leaks in the system.

D See if the wall suction unit has malfunctioned.

Question #33

A physician stated to the nurse that the client has fluid in the pleural space and will need a thoracentesis. The nurse expects the physician to document this fluid as

A hemothorax.

B consolidation.

C pneumothorax.

D pleural effusion.

Question #34

A client with suspected severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) comes to the emergency department. Which physician order should the nurse implement first?

A Obtain a sputum specimen for enzyme immunoassay testing.

B Obtain a nasopharyngeal specimen for reverse-transcription polymerase chain reaction testing.

C Begin an I.V. infusion of dextrose 5% in half-normal saline solution at 100 ml/hour.

D Institute isolation precautions.

Question #35

A client admitted to the facility for treatment for tuberculosis receives instructions about the disease. Which statement made by the client indicates the need for further instruction?

A “I’ll stay in isolation for 6 weeks.”

B “This disease may come back later if I am under stress.”

C “I’ll have to take the medication for up to a year.”

D “I’ll always have a positive test for tuberculosis.”

Question #36

A nurse is assessing a client who comes to the clinic for care. Which findings in this client suggest bacterial pneumonia?

A Sore throat and abdominal pain

B Hemoptysis and dysuria

C Dyspnea and wheezing

D Nonproductive cough and normal temperature

Question #37

A patient taking isoniazid (INH) therapy for tuberculosis demonstrates understanding when making which statement?

A “It is all right if I have a grilled cheese sandwich with American cheese.”

B “It is all right if I drink a glass of red wine with my dinner.”

C “I am going to have a tuna fish sandwich for lunch.”

D “It is fine if I eat sushi with a little bit of soy sauce.”

Question #38

After 48 hours, a Mantoux test is evaluated. At the site, there is a 10 mm induration. This finding would be considered:

A Not significant

B Negative

C Nonreactive

D Significant

Question #39

Which action should the nurse take first in caring for a client during an acute asthma attack?

A Obtain arterial blood gases.

B Administer bronchodilator as ordered.

C Send for STAT chest x-ray.

D Initiate oxygen therapy and reassess pulse oximetry in 10 minutes.

Question #40

The nurse is assessing a client’s potential for pulmonary emboli. What finding indicates possible deep vein thrombosis?

A Pain in the feet

B Decreased urinary output

C Localized calf tenderness

D Coolness to lower extremities

Question #41

A client who works construction and has been demolishing an older building is diagnosed with pneumoconiosis. This lung inflammation is most likely caused by exposure to:

A asbestos.

B coal dust.

C silica.

D pollen.

Question #42

Which vitamin is usually administered with isoniazid (INH) to prevent INH-associated peripheral neuropathy?

A Vitamin B6

B Vitamin D

C Vitamin E

D Vitamin C

Question #43

Resistance to a first-line antituberculotic agent in a client who has not received previous treatment is referred to as

A tertiary drug resistance.

B secondary drug resistance.

C primary drug resistance.

D multidrug resistance.

Question #44

Which statement indicates a client understands teaching about the purified protein derivative (PPD) test for tuberculosis?

A “If the test area turns red that means I have tuberculosis.”

B “I will avoid contact with my family until I am done with the test.”

C “Because I had a previous reaction to the test, this time I need to get a chest X-ray.”

D “I will come back in 1 week to have the test read.”

Question #45

On auscultation, which finding suggests a right pneumothorax?

A Bilateral inspiratory and expiratory crackles

B Inspiratory wheezes in the right thorax

C Absence of breath sounds in the right thorax

D Bilateral pleural friction rub

Question #46

A client hospitalized with pneumonia has thick, tenacious secretions. Which intervention should the nurse include when planning this client’s care?

A Elevating the head of the bed 30 degrees

B Maintaining a cool room temperature

C Encouraging increased fluid intake

D Turning the client every 2 hours

Question #47

The nurse is auscultating the patient’s lung sounds to determine the presence of pulmonary edema. What adventitious lung sounds are significant for pulmonary edema?

A Low-pitched rhonchi during expiration

B Crackles in the lung bases

C Pleural friction rub

D Sibilant wheezes

Question #48

A nurse reading a chart notes that the client had a Mantoux skin test result with no induration and a 1-mm area of ecchymosis. How does the nurse interpret this result?

A Borderline

B Uncertain

C Positive

D Negative

Question #49

You are caring for a client who has been diagnosed with viral pneumonia. You are making a plan of care for this client. What nursing interventions would you put into the plan of care for a client with pneumonia?

A Place client on bed rest.

B Give antibiotics as ordered.

C Encourage increased fluid intake.

D Offer nutritious snacks 2 times a day.

Question #50

The ICU nurse is caring for a client who was admitted with a diagnosis of smoke inhalation. The nurse knows that this client is at increased risk for which of the following?

A Bronchitis

B Acute respiratory distress syndrome

C Tracheobronchitis

D Lung cancer

Question #51

The occupational nurse is completing routine assessments on the employees where you work. What might be revealed by a chest radiograph for a client with occupational lung diseases?

A Damage to surrounding tissues

B Fibrotic changes in lungs

C Hemorrhage

D Lung contusion

Question #52

Class 1 with regard to TB indicates

A exposure and no evidence of infection.

B latent infection with no disease

C disease that is not clinically active.

D no exposure and no infection.

Question #53

Which interventions does a nurse implement for clients with empyema?

A Encourage breathing exercises

B Place suspected clients together

C Institute droplet precautions

D Do not allow visitors with respiratory infection

Question #54

What dietary recommendations should a nurse provide a client with a lung abscess?

A A carbohydrate-dense diet

B A diet with limited fat

C A diet low in calories

D A diet rich in protein

Question #55

A client is admitted to the facility with a productive cough, night sweats, and a fever. Which action is most important in the initial care plan?

A Placing the client in respiratory isolation

B Wearing gloves during all client contact

C Assessing the client’s temperature every 8 hours

D Monitoring the client’s fluid intake and output

Question #56

The nurse is assessing a patient who smokes 2 packs of cigarettes per day and has a strong family history of cancer. What early sign of cancer of the larynx does the nurse look for in this patient?

A Dysphagia

B Affected voice sounds

C Enlarged cervical nodes

D Burning of the throat when hot liquids are ingested

Question #57

A patient comes to the clinic complaining of a possible upper respiratory infection. What should the nurse inspect that would indicate that an upper respiratory infection may be present?

A The tracheal mucosa

B The buccal mucosa

C The frontal sinuses

D The nasal mucosa

Question #58

The nurse is caring for a client with an endotracheal tube. Which client data does the nurse interpret as a life-threatening situation?

A Copious mucous secretions

B Rhonchi in lung fields

C Sudden restlessness

D Harsh cough

Question #59

A client is scheduled for endotracheal intubation prior to surgery. What can the nurse tell this client about an endotracheal tube?

A “The ET tube will be connected to a negative-pressure ventilator.”

B “The ET tube will remain in place for at least a day postsurgery.”

C “The ET tube will maintain your airway while you’re under anesthesia.”

D “The ET tube will be inserted through an opening in your trachea.”

Question #60

Most cases of acute pharyngitis are caused by which of the following?

A Fungal infection

B Bacterial infection

C Viral infection

D Systemic infection

Question #61

A 73-year-old client is admitted to the pulmonology unit of the hospital. She was admitted with a pleural effusion and was “tapped” to drain the fluid to reduce her mediastinal pressure. How much fluid is typically present between the pleurae, which surround the lungs, to prevent friction rub?

A No fluid normally is present

B 20–25 mL

C 5–10 mL

D 20–30 mL

Question #62

You are caring for a client who is 42-years-old and status post adenoidectomy. You find the client in respiratory distress when you enter their room. You ask another nurse to call the physician and bring an endotracheal tube into the room. What do you suspect?

A Plugged tracheostomy tube

B Edema of the upper airway

C Post operative bleeding

D Infection

Question #63

A client is experiencing acute viral rhinosinusitis. The nurse is providing instructions about self–care activities and includes information about

A Cold compresses to the sinus cavities

B Saline lavages to the nares

C Administration of oral antibiotics

D Use of a dehumidifier

Question #64

When a client has undergone a laryngectomy and there is evidence of wound breakdown, the nurse monitors the client very carefully because of the high risk for

A pulmonary embolism.

B pneumonia.

C carotid artery hemorrhage.

D dehydration.

Question #65

A patient who wears contact lenses is to be placed on rifampin for tuberculosis therapy. What should the nurse tell the patient?

A “The physician can give you eye drops to prevent any problems.”

B “You should switch to wearing your glasses while taking this medication.”

C “There are no significant problems with wearing contact lenses.”

D “Only wear your contact lenses during the day and take them out in the evening before bed.”

Question #66

Approximately what percentage of people who are initially infected with TB develop active disease?

A 20%

B 10%

C 40%

D 30%

Question #67

The patient with a chest tube is being transported to X-ray. Which complication may occur if the chest tube is clamped during transportation?

A Cardiac tamponade

B Tension pneumothorax

C Pulmonary contusion

D Flail chest

Question #68

You are an occupational health nurse in a large ceramic manufacturing company. How would you intervene to prevent occupational lung disease in the employees of the company?

A Fit all employees with protective masks.

B Provide employees with smoking cessation materials.

C Give workshops on disease prevention

D Insist on adequate breaks for each employee.

Question #69

When caring for a client with acute respiratory failure, the nurse should expect to focus on resolving which set of problems?

A Hypercapnia, hypoventilation, and hypoxemia

B Hyperoxemia, hypocapnia, and hyperventilation

C Hyperventilation, hypertension, and hypocapnia

D Hypotension, hyperoxemia, and hypercapnia

Try The Exam

Fresh Grad Lands Job as Real Estate Agent With Help from Professional Writers

Need help with your exam preparation?

Below are the questions for the exam with the choices of answers:

Christian S.

Tyra

Linda

Manush

We accept payment