Lecture Exam 3

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Question #1

During translation, tRNAs anticodons recognize and attach to mRNA codons. What specifically do tRNAs bring to translation?

A an amino acid

B a sugar

C a lipid

D a protein

Question #2

If ATCG is the triplet DNA code, then the ANTICODON would be:

A UTGC

B TAGC

C AUGC

D UAGC

Question #3

In our lecture, I compared condons to:

A words of a language

B stars in the universe

C MnMs in a bag of candy

D people on the bus

Question #4

Which of the following is the best description of a gene?

A a sequence of DNA nucleotides that codes for a single protein

B the entire DNA molecule

C a sequence of amino acids in a protein

D a single nucleotide

Question #5

There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true?

A Each amino acid is specified by only one codon.

B Several different codons can specify the same amino acid.

C Some amino acids have no link to a codon.

D Each codon specifies a different amino acid.

Question #6

Which enzyme unzips or separates the DNA helix in order to expose the two parental DNA strands and creates a replication fork?

A DNA helicase

B DNA gyrase

C DNA polymerase

D DNA ligase

Question #7

All of the following are true statements concerning DNA structure, EXCEPT:

A DNA contains the nitrogenous bases A, C, G, and U.

B the two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds.

C DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.

D the two strands of a DNA molecule are antiparallel to each other.

Question #8

DNA molecules are made up of subunits called nucleotides. How many different types of nucleotides are used to make DNA molecules?

A two types

B three types

C four types

D one type

Question #9

Where does the energy come from to replicate complimentary copy DNA strands?

A kinetic charge attraction

B dNTP’ s

C electrical charge attraction

D osmosis

E diffusion

Question #10

A type of substitution in which no amino acids change is called:

A Deletion

B nonsense

C missense

D silent

Question #11

A nonsenese mutation is a point mutation, usually in the second nucleotide position, and does which of the following?

A deletes the entire protein

B introduces a stop codon

C eliminates the start codon

D creates a new protein

E changes one single amino acid

Question #12

Original DNA sequence: ATC CAT
Mutated DNA sequence: ATC GCAT.
What type of mutation occurred?

A silent

B deletion

C point mutation

D insertion

Question #13

Which of the following mutations results in a non-functional protein because a stop codon appeared too early in the mRNA sequence?

A missense

B nonsense

C frameshift

D silent

Question #14

The transfer of genetic material between two bacteria in direct physical contact through the use of a pilus is called:

A vertical gene transfer

B transformation

C transduction

D conjugation

Question #15

In Griffith’s experiments, the transforming substance was:

A DNA

B enzymes

C proteins

D RNA

Question #16

Bacterial conjugation is an example of:

A bacterial transformation

B vertical gene transfer

C horizontal gene transfer

D transduction

Question #17

Genes transferred from one cell to another is called:

A horizontal gene transfer

B transfer of gene

C vertical gene transfer

D gene transfer

Question #18

The lac operon genes only become expressed if:

A glucose binds to the repressor

B lactose binds to the operator

C the repressor binds to the operator

D lactose binds to the repressor

Question #19

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when:

A the cyclic AMP levels are low.

B the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.

C the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.

D there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.

E there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.

Question #20

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon:

A stops when the pathway’s product is present.

B occurs continuously in the cell.

C starts when the pathway’s substrate is present.

D starts when the pathways product is present.

E does not result in the production of enzymes.

Question #21

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gene regulation in bacteria?

A small-molecule sensors usually bind DNA and change its 3D structure allosterically.

B repressor proteins block transcription by binding to operator sequences.

C genes with related functions are often grouped together and have a single start codon.

D enhancers are commonly used to regulate transcription.

E activator proteins bind near promoters and increase efficiency of translation.

Question #22

In eukaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of:

A protein synthesis

B translation

C transcription

D replication

Question #23

During the reduction phase of the Calvin-Benson cycle, phosphoglyceric acid is ultimately reduced in order to make:

A pyruvic acid; NADP+ & H+

B ribulose 1,5 â bisphosphate (RuBP); NADP+ & H+

C phosphoglyceraldehyde; NADP & H+

D phosphoglyceraldehyde; ATP

Question #24

A photosynthetic bacteria is exposed to a toxin that destroys NADPH. The levels of RuBP and glucose should:

A both decrease

B both increase

C RuBP increases and glucose decreases

D glucose increases and RuBP decreases

Question #25

Which of the following is released as a photosynthesis byproduct or waste product?

A carbon dioxide

B water

C carbon

D oxygen

Question #26

Which of the following is a Photosystem II specific product?

A ATP

B CO2

C phosphogyceric acid

D Glucose

E NADPH

Question #27

The Kreb’s cycle completes two full turns for the oxidation of all pyruvic acid from glycolysis. How many total NADH molecules are made from Krebs cycle reactions only?

A 0

B 6

C 4

D 8

E 2

Question #28

Pyruvic acid, the end product of glycolysis, enters the citric acid cycle after it has been converted to:

A acetyl-CoA.

B oxaloacetic acid.

C citric acid.

D none of these.

E NADH.

Question #29

Which of the following is NOT a similarity that BOTH the Kreb’s and the Calvin Benson cycle share, or have in common?

A both cycles oxidize compounds

B both cycles produce ATP

C both cycles can start and stop

D both cycles have more than one chemical reaction

E both cycles recycle their final products

Question #30

Pyruvic acid cannot advance into the Krebs cycle. It must first be converted into a product that can be further oxidized in Krebs cycle. What is the name of this transformed molecule that starts Krebs cycle?

A CO2

B phosphoglyceric acid

C acetyl CoA

D NAD+

E oxaloacetic acid

Question #31

ATP is an energy rich molecule because:

A the bonds between the phosphate groups are unstable.

B the bonds between the phosphate groups are very stable.

C the sugar in ATP has numerous carbon-hydrogen bonds.

D the three phosphate groups are strongly attracted to each other.

Question #32

Which of the following statements regarding glycolysis is FALSE?

A oxidation of glucose is complete

B oxidation of glucose yields pyruvic acid

C oxidation of glucose yields NADH

D oxidation of glucose yields ATP

Question #33

Fermentation pathways make ATP and NADH. The ATP is used for a variety of cell functions. Why do fermenting cells need to make NADH?

A to use in the transition reaction

B to make less toxic final products

C to use in the Electron Transport System

D to make more toxic final products

E to use in the Kreb’s cycle

Question #34

Microbial fermentation can be detected in laboratory identification by observing a change in:

A glucose levels

B temperature

C oxygen levels

D pH

Question #35

Which of the following best describes enzyme saturation?

A enzymes active site is occupied by substrate

B enzymes active site is occupied ATP

C enzymes active site is not occupied by anything

D enzymes active site is occupied by O2

Question #36

An oxidation enzymatic reaction is a reaction that:

A loses an electron

B gains an electron

C increases the pH

D decreases the temperature

Question #37

Substrates and enzymes capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction, must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction’s:

A activation energy.

B equilibrium point.

C free-energy content.

D entropy.

E endothermic level.

Question #38

How does extreme temperature affect mesophilic proteins?

A destroys products

B breaks chemical bonds

C preserves existing chemical bonds

D destroys substrates

Question #39

Which of the following does NOT directly affect the activity of an enzyme?

A substrate concentration

B temperature

C pH

D oxygen concentration

Question #40

What is the difference between a reversible and non-reversible, competitive inhibitor?

A both permanently attaches to the enzymes active site

B neither one attaches to any location on an enzyme

C reversible temporarily attaches to the enzymes active site

D both permanently attaches to the enzymes allosteric site

Question #41

Which of the following statements is an accurate description of what happens in electron transport?

A NADH and FADH are reduced.

B The final electron acceptor is oxidized.

C NADH and FADH are oxidized.

D The electrons gain energy with each transfer in the chain.

Question #42

In the final step of the electron transport system, the rotation of the proton pump provides the energy for ATPase to enzymatically make ATP. What specifically is responsible for rotating this pump?

A Proton motive force from incoming ATP

B Proton motive force from income CO2

C Proton motive force from incoming H+ ions

D Proton motive force from incoming O2

Question #43

The proton motive force is:

A a H+ electrochemical gradient formed across the plasma membrane

B ATP accumulation in the plasma membrane

C the accumulation of water formed in respiration

D the movement of water across a membrane

E the movement of flagella

Question #44

Dinitrophenol (DNP) is a drug that has the ability to separate the flow of electrons through the electron transport and ATP proton pumps, used during the electron transport system. This means that the energy from electron transfer cannot be used for ATP synthesis. Assuming your bacteria has consumed DNP, how many ATPs would they produce form the complete, aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule?

A 2

B 4

C 38

D 0

Question #45

What phase of cellular respiration has the highest ATP yield?

A the transition reaction

B glycolysis

C fermentation

D the Kreb’s cycle

E oxidative phosphorylation

Question #46

Why is oxygen necessary in aerobic cellular respiration?

A it is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.

B it is needed for glycolysis, which begins the process of respiration in cells.

C it is important in creating oxaloacetic acid in the Krebs cycle.

D it provides the hydrogen nuclei needed to create a proton gradient outside of the cell

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