Exam 1 Chapters 1 – 4

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Question #1

The Omnibus Rule requires standards for the disclosure and use of protected health information (PHI), including established standards of enforcement for penalties and breach notification.

A False

B True

Question #2

Patients have the right to access and copy their medical records, but they cannot dispute anything in the record.

A False

B True

Question #3

When patients ask a family member to remain with them in a treatment room, this implies that they have given permission for the doctor and/or staff to discuss their condition in front of the family member.

A True

B False

Question #4

A healthcare provider is not allowed to discuss a patient’s medical condition or payment with a person over the phone.

A False

B True

Question #5

Providers who do NOT achieve the HITECH meaningful use standards in 2017 will face penalties that consist of a:

A 1% reduction of Medicare reimbursement.

B 4 % reduction of Medicare reimbursement.

C 2 % reduction of Medicare reimbursement.

D 3 % reduction of Medicare reimbursement.

Question #6

Healthcare providers who achieve the standards of each HITECH stage by a designated date are eligible for:

A free license renewals as long as they remain in practice.

B Medicare and Medicaid incentive payments.

C Medicaid incentive payments.

D Medicare incentive payments.

Question #7

The HITECH Act expands the privacy provisions of HIPAA to include:

A friends and family of providers.

B corporate owners of covered entities.

C friends and family of patients.

D business associates of covered entities.

Question #8

Criminal penalties for HIPAA violations can include prison time and financial penalties up to what maximum amount?

A $100,000

B $400,000

C $250,000

D $150,000

Question #9

The three types of safeguards that must be in place to be in compliance with the HIPAA Security Rule are:

A technical, training, and administrative.

B administrative, physical, and electronic.

C physical, technical, and procedural.

D physical, administrative, and technical.

Question #10

HIPAA requires that diagnoses and services be reported in a standard, consistent manner; this is accomplished by using uniform:

A modifiers.

B code sets.

C claim forms.

D descriptors.

Question #11

Approximately how many different formats are currently being used for electronic health claims?

A 400

B 350

C 500

D 450

Question #12

In the event of a security breach in regard to protected health information (PHI), providers and other covered entities must notify both the Office for Civil Rights (OCR) and the:

A individuals whose records were affected.

B Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).

C Consumer Protection Agency.

D insurance carriers whose claims were affected.

Question #13

HIPAA guidelines grant patients the right to access their own medical records and the right to:

A designate a specific person at an insurance company who may also have access.

B file a complaint about how long it takes to get a claim paid.

C request corrections of any inaccuracies in the records.

D at least 10 free copies.

Question #14

Protected health information (PHI) can be disclosed in which of the following circumstances?

A An organ procurement organization requests it to facilitate the donation and transplantation of organs.

B The U.S. Food and Drug Administration requests it in relation to a product recall.

C All of these

D A coroner requests it to assist in identifying a body.

Question #15

The document used to authorize permission for the release of protected health information (PHI) is the:

A designation of beneficiary form.

B designation for release of medical information form.

C assignment of benefits form.

D acknowledgment of informed consent form.

Question #16

Under the HIPAA Privacy Rule, a physician can discuss a patient’s medical condition or treatment with a family member or friend without written consent when:

A the payment for services is past due.

B the patient is unconscious.

C both the patient is unconscious and the patient has given verbal consent.

D the patient has given verbal consent.

Question #17

HIPAA guidelines apply to which of the following types of healthcare administrative transactions?

A eligibility requests and verifications

B health insurance claims

C claim status requests and reports

D All of these

Question #18

A managed care organization will contract with physicians, laboratories, pharmacies, hospitals, clinics, and other healthcare facilities in building a provider network.

A True

B False

Question #19

Patients are typically very familiar with their health plan benefits when discussing claims issues with the medical office specialist.

A True

B False

Question #20

In order to receive National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) accreditation, a managed care organization (MCO) must demonstrate that it has a thorough credentialing process.

A True

B False

Question #21

Most managed care contracts allow an unlimited time frame for submitting claims.

A False

B True

Question #22

ACOs are a group of insurance providers.

A True

B False

Question #23

Types of payment arrangements in managed care contracts include discounted fee-for-service, per diem, per case, percentage of premiums, and capitation.

A True

B False

Question #24

In the Patient’s Bill of Rights under the Affordable Health Care Act, young adults who are not offered coverage at work are covered by their parents’ plan until they reach:

A 26

B 21

C 19

D 25

Question #25

With respect to National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) accreditation:

A MCOs have all asked to be accredited, but some do not qualify.

B accredited MCOs are always better than nonaccredited MCOs.

C some MCOs are accredited, and some are not.

D MCOs must be accredited to operate.

Question #26

A managed care organization (MCO) uses a credentialing process to evaluate a provider’s:

A All of these.

B service fees.

C medical credentials.

D workplace environment.

Question #27

In MCOs, the business aspects of healthcare are not being controlled by:

A physicians.

B actuaries.

C accountants.

D managers.

Question #28

In plans that require the primary care physician (PCP) to play a gatekeeper role, the PCP is given incentives to:

A see as many patients each day as possible, even if this means less time with each patient.

B make frequent referrals to contracted network specialists.

C treat the patient as much as possible without a specialist referral unless absolutely necessary.

D expand office hours and/or staff to permit more patients to be seen each day.

Question #29

According to some contract terms, if an MCO does not pay a claim within the time limit specified in the contract, the provider may be able to:

A bill the patient directly.

B charge the usual and customary fee instead of the discounted fee.

C take legal action against the MCO.

D terminate the MCO contract after filing a written notice of intention.

Question #30

Under a discounted fee-for-service arrangement, covered services are compensated at a:

A reduced percentage of usual and customary charges.

B reduced per-case rate.

C discounted per-diem rate.

D per-member-per-month rate.

Question #31

A managed care contract will include a:

A list of patients covered by the plan.

B description of how the physician will be paid for services.

C description of what types of employer groups are offered coverage.

D list of physicians in the network.

Question #32

A provider who enters into a contract with an MCO is referred to as a(n):

A active provider.

B permanent provider.

C MCO provider.

D participating provider.

Question #33

A managed care contract is considered a legal document between the:

A provider and patient.

B insurer and employer.

C provider and insurer.

D patient and insurer.

Question #34

Contracts between the physician and managed care organization (MCO) are generally negotiated by the:

A physician or upper management.

B medical office specialist.

C account manager or business manager.

D attorney.

Question #35

The type of policy that would provide coverage for custodial care in a nursing home is:

A special risk insurance.

B long-term care insurance.

C short-term health insurance.

D major medical insurance.

Question #36

Group insurance is issued to an employer to provide coverage for:

A employees only.

B employees and all their dependents.

C employees and spouses only.

D employees and children only.

Question #37

Physician-hospital organizations (PHOs) may include:

A laboratories.

B All of these.

C nursing homes.

D surgery centers.

Question #38

An exclusive provider organization (EPO) is similar to a preferred provider organization (PPO) because they both have:

A gatekeepers.

B a limited provider network.

C payment by capitation.

D a flexible benefit design.

Question #39

Advantages of managed care include all of the following EXCEPT:

A Data is collected and analyzed to measure health outcomes.

B Providers strive to improve the quality of their care.

C Physicians run the risk of unfavorable evaluations by enrollees.

D Hospitals and physicians provide services more efficiently.

Question #40

Which of the following is a characteristic of a preferred provider organization (PPO)?

A It includes a contracted network of providers.

B Members must obtain referrals to see a specialist.

C The plan is more restrictive than a health maintenance organization (HMO).

D Members select a primary care physician (PCP) as a gatekeeper.

Question #41

All the following are true regarding the Affordable Care Act EXCEPT:

A It offers five different types of government plans.

B It cannot deny coverage due to a pre-existing condition.

C It requires people to prove citizenship before receiving services.

D It is also known as Obamacare.

Question #42

All of the following are types of health maintenance organizations (HMOs) EXCEPT the:

A group model.

B individual practice association.

C preferred provider model.

D open access model.

Question #43

By accepting lower payments from MCOs, physicians are forced to see more patients each day in order to:

A minimize malpractice suits.

B maintain their income.

C enroll more members in the health plan.

D deliver MCO-required preventive care.

Question #44

Which is true regarding health reimbursement arrangements (HRAs)?

A participation ends upon termination of employment.

B unused reimbursements cannot be accessed.

C expenses must have incurred during the coverage period.

D the funds cannot be used for dental and vision care.

Question #45

The subscriber in a health maintenance organization (HMO) can also be called a(n):

A member or provider.

B patient or carrier.

C policyholder or member.

D employer or policyholder.

Question #46

The duties of a primary care physician (PCP) in a health maintenance organization (HMO) include:

A referring patients to specialists.

B All of these.

C acting as a gatekeeper to services.

D coordinating patient care.

Question #47

In a managed care organization (MCO), a primary care physician (PCP) is any of the following EXCEPT:

A internal medicine doctor.

B family practitioner.

C dermatologist.

D general practitioner.

Question #48

To determine the amount due from a patient, it is necessary to know the:

A allowed amount.

B adjusted amount.

C diagnostic code.

D billed amount.

Question #49

Managed care systems ensure the delivery of high-quality care while managing costs through:

A discounted fees for services and mandatory high deductibles across all health plans.

B provider networks and discounted fees for services.

C provider networks and regular premium increases.

D prohibiting the use of out-of-network providers.

Question #50

To avoid the higher costs of healthcare, employers:

A increased employee premium contributions.

B hired younger employees.

C refused to extend health insurance to employees.

D decreased the number of health plans available to employees.

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Exam 1 Chapters 1 – 4

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