Exam 3

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Below are the questions for the exam with the choices of answers:

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Question #1

Esophageal repair may include which of the following procedures?

A Esophagomyotomy

B Open laparoscopic esophagogastric fundoplasty

C Open paraesophageal repairs

D None of these

Question #2

Which of the following covers all aspects of anesthesia care including a preprocedure visit, intraprocedural care, and postprocedure anesthesia management?

A General anesthesia

B Local anesthesia

C Monitored Anesthesia Care (MAC)

D Oximetry

Question #3

Which of the following terms describes the passing of a thin tube or catheter into the right side of the heart and the arteries leading to the lungs?

A Oximetry

B Capnography

C Mass Spectrometry (MS)

D Swan Ganz

Question #4

Which of the following terms describes blood oxygen concentration?

A Capnography

B Mass spectrometry (MS)

C Swan Ganz

D Oximetry

Question #5

Which listing below best covers some of the seven dimensions of HPI?

A Location, quality, context

B Modifying factors, severity, medication history

C Severity, repeat symptoms, duration

D Associated signs and symptoms, family history, time

Question #6

How many body systems does a specialist need to examine during an encounter for the encounter to be considered a comprehensive examination?

A 14 body systems

B 8 body systems

C A general multisystem examination or a complete examination of a single organ system

D 10 body systems

Question #7

How many body systems does a family practice physician need to examine during an encounter for the encounter to be considered a comprehensive examination?

A A general multisystem examination

B 10 body systems

C 14 body systems

D 8 body systems

Question #8

A procedure to implant a bone-anchored hearing aid is coded as a(n):

A Myringoplasty

B Mastoidectomy

C Osseointegrated implant

D Atticotomy

Question #9

Which of the following is one of the three families of tympanoplasty codes that are differentiated by unique techniques, approach, anatomy, and prosthetic or graft placement procedures?

A Catheterization

B Myringoplasty

C Atticotomy

D Mastoidectomy

Question #10

If a physician performs either a tympanoplasty or a mastoidectomy on both ears, how is the procedure reported?

A None of these.

B The correct code is reported with an add-on code for the second ear.

C Each procedure is reported as a separate code.

D The correct code is reported with modifier 50 appended to indicate it is a bilateral procedure.

Question #11

Certain skull base procedures cannot be performed alone. How are these procedures coded?

A With a primary procedure code with a modifier appended to show two or more surgeons

B With a primary procedure code with a modifier appended to show excessive time

C With a primary procedure code and one or more add-on codes

D With a primary procedure code and a secondary procedure code with modifier 51 appended

Question #12

Variables such as tumor size, initial surgical procedure or reoperation, and patient’s anatomy are indicators of which of the following procedures?

A Lobectomy

B Craniectomy

C Craniotomy

D Skull base surgery

Question #13

The surgical management of lesions of the skull base may require a team of specialists working together in:

A A team

B Single staged sessions

C Tandem

D All of these

Question #14

When an endometrial biopsy is performed at the same time as a colposcopy:

A The endometrial biopsy is coded separately from the colposcopy code.

B The colposcopy is coded first with an add-on code to cover the biopsy.

C The colposcopy is coded first with modifier 51 appended to the biopsy code.

D Both procedures are included in one CPT code.

Question #15

How is a medical condition that occurs when the supportive tissue between a woman’s bladder and vaginal wall weakens and stretches, allowing the bladder to bulge into the vagina coded?

A As a prolapse bladder

B All of these

C None of these

D As an anterior prolapse

E As a cystocele

Question #16

Which of the following terms refers to the excision of a cone of tissue from the cervix?

A Cystocele

B Myomectomy

C Fulguration

D Conization

Question #17

How many core samples may be taken in a saturation biopsy performed on certain high-risk patients with elevated prostate specific antigen levels, abnormal findings on previous biopsies, or abnormal rectal exams?

A 5 to 10

B 40 to 80

C 10 to 20

D 1 to 8

Question #18

The code choice for a vesiculotomy depends on the:

A The instrument used to perform the procedure

B Degree of complexity

C Whether the procedure is performed on an adult or infant

D None of the above

Question #19

Which of the following is a procedure performed to obtain a semen sample or determine if there is an obstruction?

A Orchiopexy

B Vasotomy

C Vasectomy

D Epididymovasostomy

Question #20

Simple and complex uroflowmetry procedures are performed to gather information on:

A The scope of urine production

B The volume of urine storage

C Bladder sensation and capacity

D The pressure of flow from the bladder

Question #21

Which of the following refers to the recording of electrical activity generated in muscle that is often used for diagnostic purposes within the urinary tract?

A Complex cystometrogram

B Hydronephrosis

C Complex uroflowmetry

D Electromyography

Question #22

What is the examination of the entire colon from rectum to cecum called?

A Colonoscopy

B Sigmoidoscopy

C Polypectomy

D Colposcopy

Question #23

Biopsy, removal of foreign body, dilation hot biopsy or bipolar cautery treatment, and snare treatment are some of the techniques used in which of the following procedures?

A None of these

B Endoscopy of the gastrointestinal regions

C Adhesiolysis of the gastrointestinal regions

D Laparoscopy of the gastrointestinal regions

Question #24

What may a left ventricular pacing catheter be called?

A Biventricular lead

B Coronary sinus lead and Biventricular lead

C Coronary sinus lead

D None of these

Question #25

When reporting skin pocket relocation codes during a repositioning of a previously implanted pacemaker, which of the following procedures are reported separately?

A Incision and drainage, debridement, and complex repairs

B Transvenous dual electrode replacement

C Backbench work to prepare the new pocket

D Atrial dual electrode replacement

Question #26

When pleural cavity or lung biopsy procedures are carried using video-assisted techniques, how may these procedures be designated?

A Endoscopic cavity searches

B Lung biopsies

C Bleps

D Video-assisted thoracic surgery

Question #27

Fluid, initial bloody fluid, or pus may settle at the bottom of the pleural space between the lung and the chest wall. This condition is referred to as:

A Multiloculated pleural effusion

B Loculations

C Uniloculated pleural effusion

D Bleps

Question #28

Additional codes for reporting procedures of the spine and spinal cord may be found in which non-musculoskeletal section?

A Nervous

B Endocrine

C Medicine

D Integumentary

Question #29

Which of the following is another term for the manipulation of a fracture?

A Compound

B Reduction

C Dislocation

D Fixation

Question #30

A procedure to remove a posterior arch of a vertebrae is known as a(n):

A Laminectomy

B Corpectomy

C Discectomy

D Vertebroplasty

Question #31

A component of a spinal deformity correction involves cutting and removing a portion of the vertebral segment in order to realign the spine. This procedure or surgery is known as a(n):

A Osteotomy

B Corpectomy

C Arthrodesis

D Discectomy

Question #32

When detailed and delicate surgeries involving the spine, the spinal cord, the skull, or one of the complicated joints are performed, often cosurgery may be necessary. This usually entails two equally qualified surgeons with parallel but separate responsibilities during the procedure or surgery. When coding such a procedure, which of the following modifiers is used?

A Modifier 62 is used for the common procedure code of each surgeon as well as those distinct parts performed separately.

B Modifier 62 is used by second surgeon only.

C Modifier 62 is used by first surgeon only.

D Modifier 62 is used by each surgeon, but only for codes not repeated by both.

Question #33

Code 99024 is associated with which of the following concepts?

A Unbundling

B Separate procedures

C Surgical package

D Unlisted procedures

Question #34

A code that refers to a procedure or service that is always performed in addition to the primary surgery or procedure, is known as a(n):

A Postsurgical code

B Third-party code

C Add-on code

D Global code

Question #35

When performing a posterior lumbar arthrodesis of the L3-L5 vertebra, what is the correct code to report?

A +22614 x 3

B 22612 x 2

C 22600

D 22612, +22614

Question #36

A patient’s nostril was retracted because of a scar acquired during the patient’s childhood. The scar was exercised and the dorsal nasal flap was used to repair a 2 sq cm, full-thickness defect caused by the excision. What is the correct code(s) to report?

A 15260

B 14060

C 14060, 15120

D 14040, 15120

Question #37

Which of the following refers to the technique of anesthetizing the roots or trunks of the brachial plexus in the neck between the anterior and middle scalene muscles?

A Local nerve block

B ntravertebral nerve block

C Interscalene nerve block

D Digital nerve block

Question #38

In addition to physical status modifiers, it may be appropriate to report other CPT modifiers when codes for procedural services are reported in addition to the basic anesthesia service. If an anesthesiologist performs additional procedures, how is this reported?

A None of these

B Each service is separately reportable

C Only the basic anesthesia service is reported with modifier 25 appended

D Each anesthesia service is reported with modifier 59 appended

Question #39

When multiple surgical procedures are performed during a single anesthetic administration:

A The anesthesia code representing the most complex procedure is reported

B The anesthesia code representing the most complex procedure is reported first with the others reported in ascending order

C An add-on code to cover the anesthetic administration is reported for each surgical procedure

D A separate time for the anesthetic administration is reported for each surgical procedure

Question #40

Placement of invasive monitoring devices and the use of transesophageal echocardiography may be:

A Add-on codes reported with the primary CPT code for the procedure

B Reported separately in addition to the basic anesthesia service or procedure

C None of these

D Reported instead of the basic anesthesia service or procedure

Question #41

In the 1995 CMS Documentation Guidelines, there were seven body areas and eleven organ systems. The 1997 CMS Documentation Guidelines called for how many general multisystem examinations?

A 11

B 10

C 8

D 12

Question #42

Two CMS Documentation Guidelines were established in 1995 and 1997. What is the main difference between the two guidelines?

A When filing a claim with Medicare, you must use a combination of the 1995 and 1997 guidelines.

B When filing a claim with Medicare, you must use one or the other; you cannot combine the 1995 and 1997 guidelines.

C When filing a claim with Medicare, you must use the 1995 guidelines.

D When filing a claim with Medicare, you must use the 1997 guidelines.

Question #43

If a patient with medical or psychosocial conditions or problems needs to be moved from acute care to a community care, domiciliary, or assisted living environment, what is the appropriate code category for this change?

A Advance Care Planning

B Transitional Care Management Services

C Domiciliary, Rest Home

D Care Management Services

Question #44

When determining which category of codes to use for reporting care for newborns and pediatric patients, which of the following determines the category?

A Comorbidities/co-mortalities

B Age of the patient

C Duration of the encounter

D Severity of the condition or problem

Question #45

Non–Face-to-Face Services (99441-99449) include which of the following?

A Telephone and online medical evaluations

B Consultations with occupational therapists

C Consultation with a social worker

D Consultation with a speech-language specialist

Question #46

Preventive Medicine Services (99381-99429) include which of the following subcategories?

A None of these

B Initial preventive medicine E/M visits for a new patient. Periodic preventive medicine reevaluation and management services for established patient visits

C Initial preventive medicine E/M visits for an established patient

D Initial preventive medicine E/M visits for an established patient. Periodic preventive medicine reevaluation and management services for established patient visits

Question #47

Case management is defined as a process by which a physician/QHP is responsible for which of the following?

A Directly caring for a patient

B All of these

C Initiating and/or supervising other health care services needed by the patient

D None of these

E Coordinating and managing access to health care services needed by the patient

Question #48

If a patient is discharged from the hospital on a different day from that on which the patient was admitted, which of the following category of codes is reported?

A Hospital Discharge Services (99238-99239)

B Initial Hospital Care (99221-99223)

C Observation or Inpatient Care Services (99234-99236)