Lecture Exam 3

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Question #1

During translation, tRNAs anticodons recognize and attach to mRNA codons. What specifically do tRNAs bring to translation?

A a sugar

B a protein

C an amino acid

D a lipid

Question #2

If ATCG is the triplet DNA code, then the ANTICODON would be:

A UTGC

B UAGC

C AUGC

D TAGC

Question #3

In our lecture, I compared condons to:

A stars in the universe

B words of a language

C people on the bus

D MnMs in a bag of candy

Question #4

Which of the following is the best description of a gene?

A the entire DNA molecule

B a sequence of DNA nucleotides that codes for a single protein

C a single nucleotide

D a sequence of amino acids in a protein

Question #5

There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true?

A Each codon specifies a different amino acid.

B Each amino acid is specified by only one codon.

C Some amino acids have no link to a codon.

D Several different codons can specify the same amino acid.

Question #6

Which enzyme unzips or separates the DNA helix in order to expose the two parental DNA strands and creates a replication fork?

A DNA helicase

B DNA gyrase

C DNA polymerase

D DNA ligase

Question #7

All of the following are true statements concerning DNA structure, EXCEPT:

A DNA contains the nitrogenous bases A, C, G, and U.

B the two strands of a DNA molecule are held together by hydrogen bonds.

C DNA contains the sugar deoxyribose.

D the two strands of a DNA molecule are antiparallel to each other.

Question #8

DNA molecules are made up of subunits called nucleotides. How many different types of nucleotides are used to make DNA molecules?

A two types

B one type

C four types

D three types

Question #9

Where does the energy come from to replicate complimentary copy DNA strands?

A electrical charge attraction

B osmosis

C kinetic charge attraction

D dNTP’ s

E diffusion

Question #10

A type of substitution in which no amino acids change is called:

A Deletion

B missense

C silent

D nonsense

Question #11

A nonsenese mutation is a point mutation, usually in the second nucleotide position, and does which of the following?

A creates a new protein

B introduces a stop codon

C changes one single amino acid

D deletes the entire protein

E eliminates the start codon

Question #12

Original DNA sequence: ATC CAT
Mutated DNA sequence: ATC GCAT.
What type of mutation occurred?

A insertion

B deletion

C silent

D point mutation

Question #13

Which of the following mutations results in a non-functional protein because a stop codon appeared too early in the mRNA sequence?

A frameshift

B nonsense

C missense

D silent

Question #14

The transfer of genetic material between two bacteria in direct physical contact through the use of a pilus is called:

A vertical gene transfer

B conjugation

C transformation

D transduction

Question #15

In Griffith’s experiments, the transforming substance was:

A enzymes

B DNA

C proteins

D RNA

Question #16

Bacterial conjugation is an example of:

A vertical gene transfer

B transduction

C bacterial transformation

D horizontal gene transfer

Question #17

Genes transferred from one cell to another is called:

A transfer of gene

B vertical gene transfer

C horizontal gene transfer

D gene transfer

Question #18

The lac operon genes only become expressed if:

A glucose binds to the repressor

B lactose binds to the operator

C lactose binds to the repressor

D the repressor binds to the operator

Question #19

The lactose operon is likely to be transcribed when:

A the cyclic AMP and lactose levels are both high within the cell.

B the cAMP level is high and the lactose level is low.

C the cyclic AMP levels are low.

D there is more glucose in the cell than lactose.

E there is glucose but no lactose in the cell.

Question #20

Transcription of the structural genes in an inducible operon:

A starts when the pathways product is present.

B does not result in the production of enzymes.

C occurs continuously in the cell.

D stops when the pathway’s product is present.

E starts when the pathway’s substrate is present.

Question #21

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding gene regulation in bacteria?

A activator proteins bind near promoters and increase efficiency of translation.

B genes with related functions are often grouped together and have a single start codon.

C repressor proteins block transcription by binding to operator sequences.

D enhancers are commonly used to regulate transcription.

E small-molecule sensors usually bind DNA and change its 3D structure allosterically.

Question #22

In eukaryotes, gene expression is primarily regulated at the level of:

A protein synthesis

B replication

C translation

D transcription

Question #23

During the reduction phase of the Calvin-Benson cycle, phosphoglyceric acid is ultimately reduced in order to make:

A phosphoglyceraldehyde; NADP & H+

B phosphoglyceraldehyde; ATP

C ribulose 1,5 â bisphosphate (RuBP); NADP+ & H+

D pyruvic acid; NADP+ & H+

Question #24

A photosynthetic bacteria is exposed to a toxin that destroys NADPH. The levels of RuBP and glucose should:

A glucose increases and RuBP decreases

B both increase

C both decrease

D RuBP increases and glucose decreases

Question #25

Which of the following is released as a photosynthesis byproduct or waste product?

A water

B oxygen

C carbon dioxide

D carbon

Question #26

Which of the following is a Photosystem II specific product?

A CO2

B Glucose

C NADPH

D ATP

E phosphogyceric acid

Question #27

The Kreb’s cycle completes two full turns for the oxidation of all pyruvic acid from glycolysis. How many total NADH molecules are made from Krebs cycle reactions only?

A 2

B 8

C 0

D 4

E 6

Question #28

Pyruvic acid, the end product of glycolysis, enters the citric acid cycle after it has been converted to:

A oxaloacetic acid.

B NADH.

C citric acid.

D acetyl-CoA.

E none of these.

Question #29

Which of the following is NOT a similarity that BOTH the Kreb’s and the Calvin Benson cycle share, or have in common?

A both cycles have more than one chemical reaction

B both cycles produce ATP

C both cycles can start and stop

D both cycles oxidize compounds

E both cycles recycle their final products

Question #30

Pyruvic acid cannot advance into the Krebs cycle. It must first be converted into a product that can be further oxidized in Krebs cycle. What is the name of this transformed molecule that starts Krebs cycle?

A CO2

B NAD+

C acetyl CoA

D oxaloacetic acid

E phosphoglyceric acid

Question #31

ATP is an energy rich molecule because:

A the sugar in ATP has numerous carbon-hydrogen bonds.

B the bonds between the phosphate groups are very stable.

C the bonds between the phosphate groups are unstable.

D the three phosphate groups are strongly attracted to each other.

Question #32

Which of the following statements regarding glycolysis is FALSE?

A oxidation of glucose is complete

B oxidation of glucose yields pyruvic acid

C oxidation of glucose yields NADH

D oxidation of glucose yields ATP

Question #33

Fermentation pathways make ATP and NADH. The ATP is used for a variety of cell functions. Why do fermenting cells need to make NADH?

A to make less toxic final products

B to make more toxic final products

C to use in the Electron Transport System

D to use in the Kreb’s cycle

E to use in the transition reaction

Question #34

Microbial fermentation can be detected in laboratory identification by observing a change in:

A glucose levels

B oxygen levels

C pH

D temperature

Question #35

Which of the following best describes enzyme saturation?

A enzymes active site is not occupied by anything

B enzymes active site is occupied by O2

C enzymes active site is occupied ATP

D enzymes active site is occupied by substrate

Question #36

An oxidation enzymatic reaction is a reaction that:

A loses an electron

B decreases the temperature

C gains an electron

D increases the pH

Question #37

Substrates and enzymes capable of interacting to form products in a chemical reaction, must first overcome a thermodynamic barrier known as the reaction’s:

A activation energy.

B entropy.

C free-energy content.

D endothermic level.

E equilibrium point.

Question #38

How does extreme temperature affect mesophilic proteins?

A destroys substrates

B preserves existing chemical bonds

C breaks chemical bonds

D destroys products

Question #39

Which of the following does NOT directly affect the activity of an enzyme?

A pH

B temperature

C oxygen concentration

D substrate concentration

Question #40

What is the difference between a reversible and non-reversible, competitive inhibitor?

A neither one attaches to any location on an enzyme

B both permanently attaches to the enzymes allosteric site

C reversible temporarily attaches to the enzymes active site

D both permanently attaches to the enzymes active site

Question #41

Which of the following statements is an accurate description of what happens in electron transport?

A The final electron acceptor is oxidized.

B NADH and FADH are reduced.

C The electrons gain energy with each transfer in the chain.

D NADH and FADH are oxidized.

Question #42

In the final step of the electron transport system, the rotation of the proton pump provides the energy for ATPase to enzymatically make ATP. What specifically is responsible for rotating this pump?

A Proton motive force from income CO2

B Proton motive force from incoming ATP

C Proton motive force from incoming H+ ions

D Proton motive force from incoming O2

Question #43

The proton motive force is:

A the movement of water across a membrane

B the accumulation of water formed in respiration

C the movement of flagella

D ATP accumulation in the plasma membrane

E a H+ electrochemical gradient formed across the plasma membrane

Question #44

Dinitrophenol (DNP) is a drug that has the ability to separate the flow of electrons through the electron transport and ATP proton pumps, used during the electron transport system. This means that the energy from electron transfer cannot be used for ATP synthesis. Assuming your bacteria has consumed DNP, how many ATPs would they produce form the complete, aerobic oxidation of one glucose molecule?

A 38

B 4

C 2

D 0

Question #45

What phase of cellular respiration has the highest ATP yield?

A the transition reaction

B the Kreb’s cycle

C glycolysis

D oxidative phosphorylation

E fermentation

Question #46

Why is oxygen necessary in aerobic cellular respiration?

A it is the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain.

B it is needed for glycolysis, which begins the process of respiration in cells.

C it is important in creating oxaloacetic acid in the Krebs cycle.

D it provides the hydrogen nuclei needed to create a proton gradient outside of the cell

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